A Metaphysical Refutation of Annihilationism
Among the variety of views on the nature of hell and damnation, annihilationism is certainly a minority. However, I have seen somewhat of a rise in its popularity, along with universalism, presumably due to moral dissatisfaction with the eternity of hell and the theodicies for that view. For those who are unfamiliar, annihilationism, broadly speaking, is the view that the damned will eventually be annihilated. This contrasts with universalism in which everyone is saved (or eventually saved if the view allows for temporary damnation) and with the view that the damned exist forever.
There are indeed simpler refutations of annihilationism than that which I will present here, specifically ones from the immortality of the intellectual soul and God's justice (see Grenier), but the argument here is one that came about through sudden epiphany and is, from what I can tell, a novel line of reasoning.
Before I begin, I have some preliminary remarks. Since not all forms of annihilationism are the same, I will be arguing against any form which proposes that the damned are either annihilated immediately upon damnation or that the damned experience a temporary punishment after which they are annihilated. Furthermore, to be annihilated is not equivalent to merely ceasing to exist in the common sense. I cease to exist in the latter sense when I die, since I as a human being no longer exist, yet my act of existence may still remain if my soul survives with it, so there is a distinction between existing in a complete and incomplete state, where I can truly say that I cease to exist when there is that transition from the complete to incomplete state. Annihilation does not consist in an incomplete state of existence, but is the complete eradication of the being, everything from its form to its act of existence. An annihilated being is completely vanquished from reality; it is nothing.
The first and least controversial point to be made is that a just reward or punishment is proportional to its merit or guilt, respectively. This is because the essence of justice is proper proportionality, that one may receive what is in accordance with what is due. It is obvious that something like the death penalty would be an abhorrent punishment for stealing a pack of gum precisely because the punishment is not properly proportional to the crime (abstaining from the notion that this pack of gum is so special that the fate of the world depends on its preservation, or something silly like that). This will be important later in the article.
The second point to touch on is the nature of salvation. The term "salvation" is the noun form of the term "save," but in order to be saved, there must be something to be saved from. All Christians would agree that what we need to be saved from is death, the cause of which is sin. So, in order remove the possibility of death, one must remove the possibility of the cause of death, viz., sin. This cannot be done by a mere return to our original uncorrupted natures, since Adam and Eve not only sinned with an uncorrupted nature, but also sinned while in possession of preternatural gifts which constituted an elevated state of nature. If we cannot be saved by a return to a natural or preternatural state, it must be the case that we can only be saved by an elevation to a supernatural state, a state beyond the limits of all created nature (as opposed to preternatural, which is beyond the limits of original nature but not beyond the limits of all created nature).
Now, the only thing beyond the limits of all created nature is God, since He is the author of all created nature, so given that man must be elevated to a supernatural state in order to remove the possibility of sin and death, the question then becomes this: "what relationship between God and man would remove the possibility of man sinning?" The answer lies in the fact that sin, and any moral qualification, is only said of rational creatures, beings with intellect and will, so given that sin is essentially an intellectual defect, it requires an intellectual cure.
To summarize what has been said, there is an intellectual relationship between God and man such that this relationship elevates man above the limits of all created nature and renders it impossible for there to be any disorders of the intellect and thus renders sin impossible. Now, since this intellectual relationship is beyond the limits of all created nature and is what elevates man, it is clearly the case that this relationship consists in man being perfected by God in some way, viz. that man is a passive recipient of actuality given by God, rather than man actualizing some passive potency in God. This newfound actuality in man is something that will bring his intellect into act, as it has been established that this is an intellectual relationship. The proper operation of the intellect is understanding, and as Aquinas says, "the intellect in act is the intelligible in act," precisely because an act is specified by its object, and the object of the intellect in its act of understanding is the intelligible species by which it knows, so this new actuality will consist in new understanding.
Something to quickly point out here is that if the condition for the impossibility of sin in an individual consists in knowledge, then it simply follows by modus tollens that ignorance is the condition for the possibility of sin in an individual.
If the actuality in man, given by God, which is beyond all created nature and which renders it impossible for him to sin is an intelligible species by which he understands, then the only possible candidate for this intelligible species is the divine essence (the reception of which is called the beatific vision). Firstly, because the divine essence is beyond the limits of all created nature. However, the most important reason is this: given that knowledge is the proper operation of the intellect, the intellect is perfected if it is brought into act and thus understands, and the greater the intelligible the more the intellect is perfected, but the divine essence is the greatest intelligible, so knowledge of the divine essence is the greatest perfection of the intellect, and given that the perfection of a being's highest faculty is the greatest perfection of a being, man's highest faculty being the intellect, then the greatest perfection of the intellect is the greatest perfection of man, and since it is ignorance which is the condition for the possibility of sin, then if man is perfected in his knowledge such that he now properly knows his ultimate good and is satisfied in it, there is simply no room for the ignorance that would cause him to look for his good in something else. Thus, sin becomes impossible.
What does any of this have to do with annihilationism? I apologize for the breadth of information here, but it is essential to the argument. Since sin is impossible upon reception of the divine essence, then the only way one could cease to have such knowledge is if God rejects the man and withdraws that knowledge from him, but God rejects no man; it is only man that rejects God, and that is impossible for man if he cannot sin. In other words, there is no guilt that could be proportional to God's removal of the beatific vision as a punishment, so such removal would be unjust. Therefore, once the knowledge is had, it cannot be lost, and man with said knowledge will love God above all forever.
This is important because my main contention with the annihilationist position is that the only guilt proportional to a being's complete annihilation would be rejection of God while in possession of the beatific vision, but given that I have showed that this is impossible, then annihilationism is impossible. I will elaborate on this in the subsequent paragraphs.
From what has been said, it is precisely because of the nature of the beatific vision that it is not had by the damned, otherwise something akin to universalism would be true which is contrary to annihilationism. Therefore, the damned are in a state of ignorance, although a highly qualified state. This is not to say that all ignorance is inculpable, it is rather the contrary. According to the conception of justice above, damned persons will be punished in a manner proportional with their sins given their degree of culpable ignorance, for it would be entirely unjust for any inculpable ignorance to factor into one's punishment.
Now, what again is annihilation? It is the complete and utter eradication of the being into pure nothingness. It is precisely that degree of ignorance, however small, which makes it impermissible for God to annihilate a damned person, because no matter how low in the depths of Hell a person is, the fact that they have this degree of ignorance means that it is still the case that they seek God as their final end, and thus seek their own goodness and fulfilment of being, but that they are just severely mistaken. Sin is not only the rejection of God, but in a way, it is a rejection of one's own being, because to reject God is to reject one's own goodness and the end for which one exists, and so the lower one is in Hell, the more they reject their own being. The only reason one cannot reject their entire being wholesale is because of that degree of ignorance, and so the only way a person could, per impossible, reject their entire being is if they did so while in possession of the beatific vision, and then the only proportional punishment to that degree of guilt would have to be annihilation, but since the beatific vision entails the impossibility of sin, there simply could be no guilt to which a proportional punishment is annihilation of the person.
Interesting post. I ofc agree with a lot of it, but I'm going to argue that ECT is a far worse punishment than Annihilationism. I think this seems intuitive to most people: everyone would rather die than perpetually suffer. Here are some interesting alternatives/paths forward for the annihilationist:
ReplyDeleteThe first might be to reject that the total/complete sort of annihilation that is being criticized here is essential for annihilationism. You say at the outset that you are only criticizing certain kinds of annihilationism, but the argument may seem trivial if pretty much any annihilationist can just make the move to a more modest form of it. This modest form might come in a few different ways, one of which being what I take to be the only plausible Pauline alternative to universalism: Pharisaic annihilationism. On this view, salvation is resurrection. Nothing additional need happen to the damned other than the fact that they are not resurrected. Whatever the unconscious state of the person after bodily death, it wasn't deemed a harsh enough annihilation to run the argument on, so the annihilationist could take this path. Another way forward is to reject that the annihilating aspect of an annihilationist concept of damned eschatology is a punishment. On this view, the act of annihilating the damned is an act of mercy as the only alternative is perpetual torment. I reject that this is in fact the only alternative, but proponents of ECT don't have grounds to do so. If the Anni conceives of the annihilation as an act of mercy rather than retributive justice, they don't need to defend against claims to its disproportionality with sinful acts
Lastly, it seems to me that the reasoning here is getting really close to the reasoning why one should also reject ECT. The Thomistic account of damnation requires a no turning back point: the fixity of the will. However, it seems to me that fixing someone onto their orientation towards non-being is within the realm of the worst possible punishment, even if the end of non-being is supernaturally avoided. Whether someone is totally annihilated or not, fixing someone into a perpetual state of orientation towards death is just the same kind of punishment that requires one to sin in a state of knowledge that doesn't allow for sin.
thoughts?
From what I know scripture pretty explicitly says that all will be resurrected, even the damned, so unless they're some kind of Jew then that won't really work, and my article is more focused on Christians anyway. And if there is something of the person surviving then to me it's not really annihilationism, even if Trent Horn wants to say that a view in which "the kind of person they were is gone" is annihilationism which to me seems ad hoc and equivocal.
DeleteIn terms of an act of mercy, it seems to me that the metaphysics would just entail that annihilation is the worst evil objectively, given that evil corresponds to privation and annihilation is the pure privation of a whole which is going to be more evil per se than any partial privation which is parasitic on some good; Aquinas says that the essence of mercy is the expulsion of some defect which causes misery in the subject of the defect and that defects are not removed except by the perfection of some kind of goodness, and although non-being can be signed under the aspect of goodness accidentally or relatively if some non-being causes the removal of a defect (perhaps amputation to remove a disease which is fatal and gives a short life expectancy), an annihilation could not fall under this because there is no perfection gained or received as it is the pure absence of being. In the case of the amputee, even though it is non-being which causes the removal of an evil (disease), the subject is more perfect, because the being is in a better state living without the arm and without the impending death sentence than if he had the arm but with the impending death sentence; one can't say that a subject is in a better state of being when the better state of being is not a state of being at all, haha. Your last point seems to just counter my point by saying that ECT is what would be proportional to a rejection of God in the beatific vision, but I'd need some justification for that. Thanks for interacting with the post.
There are at least two relevant competing traditions regarding resurrection, and both are contained in the OT and are continued in the NT. On one view everyone is resurrected and then judged. On another view, resurrection is salvation. Only the saved rise. This second view seems closest to what Paul believes (if not universalism). Some Christians may reject that this kind of division can exist within scripture, but the Christians that do could potentially hold this view. While your argument may be directed towards Christians, I think it is relevant that a non-Christian could simply criticize ECT Christianity on the basis that the so-called unbiblical version of annihilationism isn't considered.
DeleteIf we don't want to call this annihilationism. Then what do we call it? It clearly isn't universalism or infernalism either.
> "in terms of an act of mercy, it seems to me that the metaphysics would just entail that annihilation is the worst evil objectively..."
From my perspective, both annihilationism and infernalism are on par to a relevant degree. Infernalism is just annihilationism spread out over time. For Aquinas, sinning against the infinite God deserves infinite punishment. In my paper on Aquinas, I criticized the fact that it is the actus reus alone that seems to inform his conception of deserving an infinite punishment. If one brings in mens rea, as needed for your criticism of annihilationism, it's hard to see why the universalist argument that one could not deserve the infinite punishment envisaged by Thomistic infernalists wouldn't go through on the same grounds.
Someone being punished eternally only experiences finite punishment/suffering at any given moment, but his punishment is still considered "infinite" because there is no end to his punishment. The fact that it will continue forever grants the series of finite punishments/sufferings infinitude. But then, why doesn't the series of finite privations also count as infinite if we guarantee that the privative state continues forever? This is what I mean when I say that infernalism is just annihilationism stretched out over time. This also answers (briefly) why I think ECT is proportional to a rejection of God in the beatific vision. If the punishment is infinite, the crime was infinite, but the crime is always qualified by a limited mens rea due to limited knowledge. One is always culpable only to the limited degree to which they sinned with knowledge. Only if one sinned with the beatific vision would their knowledge not pose any constraint, and so the mens rea could not restrict the actus reus in any way.
I also think that if we don't allow Thomistic metaphysics to accommodate some of these intuitions regarding mercy, then the metaphysics as a whole just becomes less plausible. Surely some cases of medically assisted suicide are justifiable, but what goodness in the subject of the defect is being perfected?
I don't want to focus too much on different interpretations and all that kind of stuff, because that just leads to a rabbit hole; in this article I am focusing on what is standard (and to me, obvious), that the damned are raised.
DeleteIf we don't call it annihilationism, perhaps we could call it some subset of soul sleep.
" For Aquinas, sinning against the infinite God deserves infinite punishment."
This must be highly qualified, as he explicitly condemns the notion that any punishment is infinite in intensity; it is only infinite in duration.
It is precisely the use of mens rea that allows me to conclude with an infinite durative punishment contra annihilationism above. The universalist argument wouldn't go through because it's not even wrong, i.e., it seems to me that the infinite punishment it is using mens rea to argue against is punishment infinite in intensity/severity, not in duration, but I agree the former view is false, and it doesn't affect classical infernalism/the view I present in the article.
"But then, why doesn't the series of finite privations also count as infinite if we guarantee that the privative state continues forever? This is what I mean when I say that infernalism is just annihilationism stretched out over time."
I don't understand what series you're referring to or the "stretched out" analogy.
Your reasoning for why ECT is proportional to a rejection of God with the beatific vision isn't any materially different from what I say in the article, except that I explain in the article how that reasoning leads to annihilationism being the punishment.
"Surely some cases of medically assisted suicide are justifiable, but what goodness in the subject of the defect is being perfected?"
Given that it is surely NOT the case that assisted suicide is permissible, the consequent is of no consequence (pun intended)